SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
HOME SCIENCE (064)
CLASS XII (2024-25)

TIME- 3 hours | M.M-70

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. There are total 35 questions.
  3. Question paper is divided into four sections—A, B, C, and D.
  4. Section A has questions no.1 to 14, which are Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) and are of 1 mark each.
  5. Section B has questions no.15 to 18, which are case-based questions and are of 1 mark each.
  6. Section C has questions no.19 to 25, which are of 2 marks each, and questions no.26 to 29 are of 3 marks each.
  7. Section D has questions no.30 to 33, which are of 4 marks each, and questions no.34 and 35 are of 5 marks each.
  8. Internal choices are given in some questions.
  9. Support your answers with suitable examples wherever required.

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS) – 1 MARK EACH

  1. Which of the following is the guiding principle of ECCE?
    (A) Blend of modern and traditional sources
    (B) Mix of formal and informal interactions
    (C) Based on only informal interaction
    (D) Use of expensive materials, arts and knowledge
    Answer: (B) Mix of formal and informal interactions
  2. The set of methods and techniques used to transform raw ingredients into finished and semi-finished products is-
    (A) Food Science
    (B) Food Processing
    (C) Food Technology
    (D) Food Manufacturing
    Answer: (B) Food Processing
  3. Which of the following is the main aim of a social entrepreneur?
    (A) Changing the pattern of design of a product/commodity
    (B) Achieving large-scale benefits through entrepreneurship for a specific group
    (C) Attempting new technological methods for producing a commodity
    (D) Attaining full employment and self-reliance for women workers
    Answer: (B) Achieving large-scale benefits through entrepreneurship for a specific group
  4. Which of the following is a visible biological hazard in food?
    (A) Virus
    (B) Stones
    (C) Protozoa
    (D) Caterpillars
    Answer: (D) Caterpillars
  5. Frozen peas are an example of:
    (A) Functional food
    (B) Formulated food
    (C) Preserved food
    (D) Minimally processed food
    Answer: (D) Minimally processed food

     

    OR
    The process of conversion of oil to Vanaspati is called as _____________.
    (A) Hydrogenation
    (B) Fortification
    (C) Preservation
    (D) Supplementation
    Answer: (A) Hydrogenation

  6. Which of the following is a short-term strategy to combat malnutrition?
    (A) Ensuring food security
    (B) Control of micronutrient deficiencies
    (C) Employment generation schemes
    (D) Prevention of food adulteration
    Answer: (B) Control of micronutrient deficiencies
  7. If the food gets spoiled during transportation, then it shows a lack of control in which of the food safety management systems?
    (A) ISO
    (B) GMP
    (C) GHP
    (D) GDP
    Answer: (C) GHP
  8. Choose the correct pair of craft with its state.
    (A) Shola craft: Maharashtra
    (B) Channapatna dolls: Karnataka
    (C) Warli painting: Assam
    (D) Bamboo craft: Odisha
    Answer: (B) Channapatna dolls: Karnataka
  9. When the height of the child is less than adequate for age, this is termed as-
    (A) Underweight
    (B) Stunting
    (C) Wasting
    (D) Obesity
    Answer: (B) Stunting
  10. Which of the following organization supported in implementation of the Red Ribbon Express (RRE) project?
    (A) NYKS
    (B) SARI
    (C) CRS
    (D) SEWA
    Answer: (A) NYKS
  11. Match colour harmony given in List I with its description in List II.

List I (Colour Harmony) | List II (Description)
i. Monochromatic harmony | 1. Two pairs of complementary
ii. Achromatic harmony | 2. Only neutrals
iii. Double Complementary harmony | 3. Combination of three colours
iv. Split complementary harmony | 4. Single hue

Choose the correct option from the following-
(A) i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3
(B) i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1
(C) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
(D) i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2
Answer: (A) i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3

  1. Match different types of establishments offering hospitality services given in List I with its feature in List II.

List I (Types of establishments offering hospitality services) | List II (Feature)
i. Hotel | 1. Only lodging
ii. Motel | 2. Lodging, meals, and other services
iii. Resort | 3. Lodging and parking near the room
iv. Lodge | 4. Lodging with a range of amenities

Choose the correct option from the following-
(A) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
(B) i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1
(C) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
(D) i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2
Answer: (A) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1

  1. Which of the following career options are advised for DCJ professionals?
    (i) Community Media
    (ii) Analyst for testing
    (iii) Research Scholar
    (iv) Quality Control Manager

Choose the correct option from the following-
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Answer: (A) (i) and (iii)

  1. Which of the following are features of SOS children’s home?
    (i) Grow with biological families
    (ii) Supports till child becomes independent
    (iii) Family-based long-term care for orphan children
    (iv) Government social organization which has family approach

Choose the correct option from the following-
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Answer: (B) (ii) and (iii)

OR
Which of the following services are offered by ICDS?
(i) Non-formal pre-school education
(ii) Supplementary feeding
(iii) Establishment of youth clubs
(iv) Social defense and protection

Choose the correct option from the following-
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Answer: (A) (i) and (ii)

SECTION B (CASE STUDY-BASED QUESTIONS) – 1 MARK EACH

15.
Read the passage carefully and answer Questions no. 15 to 18.

The medical nutrition therapist takes into account the food pattern and frequency of intake of different types of food, diagnosis of disease and prescription given by the doctor, the health status and physical condition including the ability to eat, chew, swallow, digest, and absorb the food eaten, feeling of hunger, physical activity and lifestyle, dietary and other supplements consumed, cultural/ethnic practices, and religious beliefs.

In the context of medical nutrition therapy, choose the correct pair.
(A) Antioxidants: Low sodium salt
(B) Nutraceuticals: Beta-carotene
(C) Medical foods: Lactose-free milk
(D) Phytochemicals: Amla powder
Answer: (C) Medical foods: Lactose-free milk

16.
Match the type of diets given in List I with the examples in List II.

List I (Type of Diets) | List II (Examples)
i. Mechanical soft diet | 1. Buttermilk
ii. Liquid diet | 2. Sago kheer
iii. Soft diet | 3. Strained soup
iv. Clear liquid diet | 4. Pureed apple

Choose the correct option from the following-
(A) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
(B) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
(C) i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1
(D) i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3
Answer: (B) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1

17.
Given below are two statements labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

ASSERTION (A): Intravenous feeds are preferred over tube feeds.
REASON (R): In intravenous feeds, the patients are nourished with special solutions that are given through a drip in the vein.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Answer: (D) A is false but R is true.

18.
Given below are two statements labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

ASSERTION (A): High consumption of convenience and processed foods increases the incidence of Hypertension.
REASON (R): It is attributed to the presence of high sodium content.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Answer: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

SECTION C

(SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS) – 2 or 3 MARKS EACH

19.
‘Youth should be encouraged to enroll with scouts and guides.’ Support this statement with four reasons.
OR
‘Youth is the period when the individual is preparing to take on adult roles.’ Give four reasons why youth are considered vulnerable.

Answer:

  • Reasons for encouraging youth to enroll with scouts and guides:
    1. Development of Leadership Skills: Youth learn to take on leadership roles, helping to build confidence and decision-making abilities.
    2. Promotes Teamwork: Scouts and guides work in teams, fostering cooperation and collaboration among peers.
    3. Character Building: The experience instills values such as honesty, discipline, responsibility, and respect for others.
    4. Community Service: Scouts and guides often engage in community service projects, which instills a sense of social responsibility and empathy.
  • Reasons why youth are considered vulnerable:
    1. Physical and Emotional Changes: Adolescents undergo significant physical and emotional changes that can make them more susceptible to stress and health problems.
    2. Peer Pressure: They may be more easily influenced by peers, which can lead to risky behaviors such as substance abuse or unsafe activities.
    3. Uncertain Future: The lack of clear direction regarding education, career, and relationships can cause confusion and anxiety.
    4. Lack of Experience: Youth often lack life experience and decision-making skills, making them vulnerable to exploitation and poor choices.

20.
‘Eco-friendly practices in hotels are crucial for reducing environmental impact, enhancing sustainability, and attracting environmentally conscious guests, ultimately leading to long-term cost savings and a positive brand image.’ Suggest four practices by which a hotel can ensure to be Eco-friendly.

Answer:

  1. Waste Management and Recycling: Hotels can reduce waste by implementing recycling programs and minimizing single-use plastics. They can also encourage guests to participate in waste reduction.
  2. Energy Conservation: Installing energy-efficient lighting and appliances, using renewable energy sources, and encouraging guests to save energy (e.g., turning off lights when not in use) are effective practices.
  3. Water Conservation: Hotels can install low-flow faucets, showers, and toilets, and use water-efficient landscaping practices. They can also encourage guests to minimize water usage.
  4. Sustainable Food Practices: Sourcing food locally, reducing food waste, and offering plant-based menu options can help reduce the environmental impact of hotel dining.

21.
Which four factors determine the texture in textile materials?

Answer:

  1. Fiber Type: The type of fiber (natural or synthetic) affects the texture of the fabric.
  2. Yarn Twist: The way yarns are twisted influences the smoothness or roughness of the fabric.
  3. Weaving or Knitting Method: The pattern and density of weaving or knitting (e.g., plain weave, twill weave, jersey knit) determine the texture.
  4. Finishes Applied: Chemical or mechanical finishes (e.g., softening agents, calendering) affect the fabric’s smoothness and feel.

22.
State two aspects of care and maintenance of fabrics.

Answer:

  1. Washing and Cleaning: Fabrics should be washed according to care labels using appropriate detergents and washing methods (machine wash, hand wash, dry clean) to prevent damage.
  2. Storage: Proper storage of fabrics, such as folding or hanging garments properly, prevents them from wrinkling or losing shape. Using garment bags or moth repellents can help protect against pests.

23.
Give four objectives of diet therapy.

Answer:

  1. Manage Medical Conditions: Diet therapy aims to manage or treat health conditions such as diabetes, hypertension, and obesity.
  2. Nutritional Support: It helps provide the necessary nutrients for individuals who are malnourished or recovering from illness.
  3. Promote Health: A balanced diet is designed to promote overall health and prevent chronic diseases.
  4. Aid in Recovery: In cases of surgery or illness, diet therapy ensures that patients receive the nutrients necessary for healing and recovery.

24.
‘The guest’s decision to stay and repeatedly visit the hotel in future largely depends upon the quality of the services provided by the housekeeping department of the hotel.’ Which four services are provided by this department?

Answer:

  1. Room Cleaning and Maintenance: Housekeeping ensures that rooms are clean, well-maintained, and stocked with necessary amenities.
  2. Laundry Services: Housekeeping provides laundry and dry-cleaning services for guests.
  3. Turn-Down Service: Housekeeping offers turndown service, including preparing the bed and providing additional comfort items.
  4. Guest Supplies and Amenities: The department provides toiletries, towels, linens, and other essential items needed during the guest’s stay.

25.
(a) How are Respite Care homes different from Mobile Medicare units in terms of services offered to the elderly?
OR
(b) List four common problems faced by the elderly population.

Answer:

  • (a) Differences between Respite Care Homes and Mobile Medicare Units:
    1. Location: Respite Care homes are stationary facilities where elderly individuals can stay temporarily for care, while Mobile Medicare units are portable and provide healthcare services at the elderly person’s home.
    2. Type of Services: Respite Care homes offer long-term care, including supervision, meals, and personal care, whereas Mobile Medicare units provide medical services like check-ups, vaccinations, and basic treatments.
    3. Duration of Care: Respite Care homes are designed for temporary stays, providing relief to caregivers, while Mobile Medicare units typically provide short-term medical interventions.
    4. Facilities: Respite Care homes are equipped with facilities for elderly care, including recreational activities, while Mobile Medicare units are equipped with medical equipment for healthcare delivery.
  • (b) Four common problems faced by the elderly population:
    1. Physical Health Issues: Conditions such as arthritis, osteoporosis, heart disease, and vision/hearing impairments.
    2. Mental Health Issues: Cognitive decline, memory loss, and dementia-related disorders.
    3. Mobility Problems: Difficulty with walking, balance, and coordination, leading to a higher risk of falls.
    4. Social Isolation: Loneliness and lack of social interaction due to mobility issues, loss of friends, or limited family support.

26.
Ramesh/Rina has to wear a shirt and trousers, suggest three ways by which he/she can create harmony in it.
OR
‘The elements of design are considered while creating a balance in a dress.’ Compare formal balance with informal balance. Give three points.

Answer:

  • Creating Harmony in Shirt and Trousers:
    1. Color Coordination: Choose complementary or matching colors for the shirt and trousers to create a unified look (e.g., light blue shirt with navy trousers).
    2. Fabric Match: Ensure that the fabrics of the shirt and trousers complement each other, such as a cotton shirt paired with cotton trousers for a cohesive feel.
    3. Fit and Proportion: Ensure both the shirt and trousers fit well and are proportionate to the body shape, creating a balanced and harmonious appearance.
  • Comparison between Formal Balance and Informal Balance:
    1. Symmetry vs. Asymmetry: Formal balance is characterized by symmetrical design, where elements on either side of a central axis are identical, while informal balance involves asymmetry, where elements of different sizes, shapes, or colors are arranged in a balanced way.
    2. Use of Space: In formal balance, space is evenly distributed, whereas in informal balance, the space may vary to create a more relaxed and dynamic look.
    3. Visual Weight: Formal balance uses equal visual weight on both sides of the outfit, whereas informal balance uses different elements with varying visual weight, yet still maintains equilibrium.

27.
What is PSA? Why is it considered an effective program? Provide four reasons to support your answer.

Answer:

  • PSA (Public Service Announcement) is a message in the public interest spread by the media to inform, educate, or influence the public.
  • Reasons why PSA is considered effective:
    1. Wide Reach: PSAs are broadcast on multiple platforms (TV, radio, social media), ensuring that the message reaches a large audience.
    2. Awareness Creation: PSAs help in creating awareness about social, health, and environmental issues.
    3. Cost-Effective: Many media outlets offer PSAs free of charge, making them a low-cost option for awareness campaigns.
    4. Influence on Behavior: PSAs can lead to behavior change by educating the public on important issues, such as health practices or safety measures.

28.
(a) State two factors that are responsible for the gradual erosion of traditional art.
(b) Why do you think there is an urgent need to revive and sustain these traditional art and craft forms?
(c) List two steps taken by the government to sustain and promote traditional art and craft.

Answer:

  • (a) Two factors responsible for the erosion of traditional art:
    1. Industrialization: Mass production of goods has reduced the demand for handmade traditional crafts.
    2. Loss of Skill and Knowledge: Younger generations are not learning traditional skills due to the lack of interest and the influence of modern technologies.
  • **(b) Need to

revive traditional arts and crafts:**

  1. Cultural Preservation: Reviving traditional art helps preserve cultural heritage for future generations.
  2. Economic Empowerment: Traditional crafts provide employment and income, especially for artisans in rural areas.
  3. Global Recognition: Many traditional crafts have international appeal, offering economic opportunities in global markets.
  • (c) Two steps taken by the government:
    1. Geographical Indication (GI) Tags: These are provided to traditional crafts, protecting the intellectual property rights of artisans.
    2. National Handicrafts Development Programme: The government promotes training, marketing, and preservation of traditional crafts through various schemes.

29.
Discuss three types of hazards along with an example for each.
OR
Enumerate three roles of Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC) in enhancing food safety.

Answer:

  • Three types of hazards in food:
    1. Biological Hazards: These include bacteria, viruses, and fungi that can cause foodborne illnesses. Example: Salmonella contamination in raw chicken.
    2. Chemical Hazards: These include harmful chemicals such as pesticides, food additives, and heavy metals. Example: Lead contamination in water used for food processing.
    3. Physical Hazards: These include foreign objects that may contaminate food. Example: Glass shards found in packaged food.
  • Roles of Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC):
    1. Setting International Standards: CAC sets food safety standards to ensure food is safe for consumption globally.
    2. Ensuring Fair Practices in Food Trade: It develops guidelines to ensure fair practices in international food trade.
    3. Providing a Framework for Food Safety Management: CAC offers guidelines for national authorities to improve food safety systems and risk management.

SECTION B (CASE STUDY-BASED QUESTIONS) – 1 MARK EACH

15.
Read the passage carefully and answer Questions no. 15 to 18.

The medical nutrition therapist takes into account the food pattern and frequency of intake of different types of food, diagnosis of disease and prescription given by the doctor, the health status and physical condition including the ability to eat, chew, swallow, digest, and absorb the food eaten, feeling of hunger, physical activity and lifestyle, dietary and other supplements consumed, cultural/ethnic practices, and religious beliefs.

In the context of medical nutrition therapy, choose the correct pair.
(A) Antioxidants: Low sodium salt
(B) Nutraceuticals: Beta-carotene
(C) Medical foods: Lactose-free milk
(D) Phytochemicals: Amla powder
Answer: (C) Medical foods: Lactose-free milk

16.
Match the type of diets given in List I with the examples in List II.

List I (Type of Diets) | List II (Examples)
i. Mechanical soft diet | 1. Buttermilk
ii. Liquid diet | 2. Sago kheer
iii. Soft diet | 3. Strained soup
iv. Clear liquid diet | 4. Pureed apple

Choose the correct option from the following-
(A) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
(B) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
(C) i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1
(D) i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3
Answer: (B) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1

17.
Given below are two statements labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

ASSERTION (A): Intravenous feeds are preferred over tube feeds.
REASON (R): In intravenous feeds, the patients are nourished with special solutions that are given through a drip in the vein.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Answer: (D) A is false but R is true.

18.
Given below are two statements labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

ASSERTION (A): High consumption of convenience and processed foods increases the incidence of Hypertension.
REASON (R): It is attributed to the presence of high sodium content.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Answer: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

SECTION C

(SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS) – 2 or 3 MARKS EACH

19.
‘Youth should be encouraged to enroll with scouts and guides.’ Support this statement with four reasons.
OR
‘Youth is the period when the individual is preparing to take on adult roles.’ Give four reasons why youth are considered vulnerable.

Answer:

  • Reasons for encouraging youth to enroll with scouts and guides:

    1. Development of Leadership Skills: Youth learn to take on leadership roles, helping to build confidence and decision-making abilities.
    2. Promotes Teamwork: Scouts and guides work in teams, fostering cooperation and collaboration among peers.
    3. Character Building: The experience instills values such as honesty, discipline, responsibility, and respect for others.
    4. Community Service: Scouts and guides often engage in community service projects, which instills a sense of social responsibility and empathy.

  • Reasons why youth are considered vulnerable:

    1. Physical and Emotional Changes: Adolescents undergo significant physical and emotional changes that can make them more susceptible to stress and health problems.
    2. Peer Pressure: They may be more easily influenced by peers, which can lead to risky behaviors such as substance abuse or unsafe activities.
    3. Uncertain Future: The lack of clear direction regarding education, career, and relationships can cause confusion and anxiety.
    4. Lack of Experience: Youth often lack life experience and decision-making skills, making them vulnerable to exploitation and poor choices.

20.
‘Eco-friendly practices in hotels are crucial for reducing environmental impact, enhancing sustainability, and attracting environmentally conscious guests, ultimately leading to long-term cost savings and a positive brand image.’ Suggest four practices by which a hotel can ensure to be Eco-friendly.

Answer:

  1. Waste Management and Recycling: Hotels can reduce waste by implementing recycling programs and minimizing single-use plastics. They can also encourage guests to participate in waste reduction.
  2. Energy Conservation: Installing energy-efficient lighting and appliances, using renewable energy sources, and encouraging guests to save energy (e.g., turning off lights when not in use) are effective practices.
  3. Water Conservation: Hotels can install low-flow faucets, showers, and toilets, and use water-efficient landscaping practices. They can also encourage guests to minimize water usage.
  4. Sustainable Food Practices: Sourcing food locally, reducing food waste, and offering plant-based menu options can help reduce the environmental impact of hotel dining.

21.
Which four factors determine the texture in textile materials?

Answer:

  1. Fiber Type: The type of fiber (natural or synthetic) affects the texture of the fabric.
  2. Yarn Twist: The way yarns are twisted influences the smoothness or roughness of the fabric.
  3. Weaving or Knitting Method: The pattern and density of weaving or knitting (e.g., plain weave, twill weave, jersey knit) determine the texture.
  4. Finishes Applied: Chemical or mechanical finishes (e.g., softening agents, calendering) affect the fabric’s smoothness and feel.

22.
State two aspects of care and maintenance of fabrics.

Answer:

  1. Washing and Cleaning: Fabrics should be washed according to care labels using appropriate detergents and washing methods (machine wash, hand wash, dry clean) to prevent damage.
  2. Storage: Proper storage of fabrics, such as folding or hanging garments properly, prevents them from wrinkling or losing shape. Using garment bags or moth repellents can help protect against pests.

23.
Give four objectives of diet therapy.

Answer:

  1. Manage Medical Conditions: Diet therapy aims to manage or treat health conditions such as diabetes, hypertension, and obesity.
  2. Nutritional Support: It helps provide the necessary nutrients for individuals who are malnourished or recovering from illness.
  3. Promote Health: A balanced diet is designed to promote overall health and prevent chronic diseases.
  4. Aid in Recovery: In cases of surgery or illness, diet therapy ensures that patients receive the nutrients necessary for healing and recovery.

24.
‘The guest’s decision to stay and repeatedly visit the hotel in future largely depends upon the quality of the services provided by the housekeeping department of the hotel.’ Which four services are provided by this department?

Answer:

  1. Room Cleaning and Maintenance: Housekeeping ensures that rooms are clean, well-maintained, and stocked with necessary amenities.
  2. Laundry Services: Housekeeping provides laundry and dry-cleaning services for guests.
  3. Turn-Down Service: Housekeeping offers turndown service, including preparing the bed and providing additional comfort items.
  4. Guest Supplies and Amenities: The department provides toiletries, towels, linens, and other essential items needed during the guest’s stay.

25.
(a) How are Respite Care homes different from Mobile Medicare units in terms of services offered to the elderly?
OR
(b) List four common problems faced by the elderly population.

Answer:

  • (a) Differences between Respite Care Homes and Mobile Medicare Units:

    1. Location: Respite Care homes are stationary facilities where elderly individuals can stay temporarily for care, while Mobile Medicare units are portable and provide healthcare services at the elderly person’s home.
    2. Type of Services: Respite Care homes offer long-term care, including supervision, meals, and personal care, whereas Mobile Medicare units provide medical services like check-ups, vaccinations, and basic treatments.
    3. Duration of Care: Respite Care homes are designed for temporary stays, providing relief to caregivers, while Mobile Medicare units typically provide short-term medical interventions.
    4. Facilities: Respite Care homes are equipped with facilities for elderly care, including recreational activities, while Mobile Medicare units are equipped with medical equipment for healthcare delivery.

  • (b) Four common problems faced by the elderly population:

    1. Physical Health Issues: Conditions such as arthritis, osteoporosis, heart disease, and vision/hearing impairments.
    2. Mental Health Issues: Cognitive decline, memory loss, and dementia-related disorders.
    3. Mobility Problems: Difficulty with walking, balance, and coordination, leading to a higher risk of falls.
    4. Social Isolation: Loneliness and lack of social interaction due to mobility issues, loss of friends, or limited family support.

26.
Ramesh/Rina has to wear a shirt and trousers, suggest three ways by which he/she can create harmony in it.
OR
‘The elements of design are considered while creating a balance in a dress.’ Compare formal balance with informal balance. Give three points.

Answer:

  • Creating Harmony in Shirt and Trousers:

    1. Color Coordination: Choose complementary or matching colors for the shirt and trousers to create a unified look (e.g., light blue shirt with navy trousers).
    2. Fabric Match: Ensure that the fabrics of the shirt and trousers complement each other, such as a cotton shirt paired with cotton trousers for a cohesive feel.
    3. Fit and Proportion: Ensure both the shirt and trousers fit well and are proportionate to the body shape, creating a balanced and harmonious appearance.

  • Comparison between Formal Balance and Informal Balance:

    1. Symmetry vs. Asymmetry: Formal balance is characterized by symmetrical design, where elements on either side of a central axis are identical, while informal balance involves asymmetry, where elements of different sizes, shapes, or colors are arranged in a balanced way.
    2. Use of Space: In formal balance, space is evenly distributed, whereas in informal balance, the space may vary to create a more relaxed and dynamic look.
    3. Visual Weight: Formal balance uses equal visual weight on both sides of the outfit, whereas informal balance uses different elements with varying visual weight, yet still maintains equilibrium.

27.
What is PSA? Why is it considered an effective program? Provide four reasons to support your answer.

Answer:

  • PSA (Public Service Announcement) is a message in the public interest spread by the media to inform, educate, or influence the public.
  • Reasons why PSA is considered effective:
    1. Wide Reach: PSAs are broadcast on multiple platforms (TV, radio, social media), ensuring that the message reaches a large audience.
    2. Awareness Creation: PSAs help in creating awareness about social, health, and environmental issues.
    3. Cost-Effective: Many media outlets offer PSAs free of charge, making them a low-cost option for awareness campaigns.
    4. Influence on Behavior: PSAs can lead to behavior change by educating the public on important issues, such as health practices or safety measures.

28.
(a) State two factors that are responsible for the gradual erosion of traditional art.
(b) Why do you think there is an urgent need to revive and sustain these traditional art and craft forms?
(c) List two steps taken by the government to sustain and promote traditional art and craft.

Answer:

  • (a) Two factors responsible for the erosion of traditional art:

    1. Industrialization: Mass production of goods has reduced the demand for handmade traditional crafts.
    2. Loss of Skill and Knowledge: Younger generations are not learning traditional skills due to the lack of interest and the influence of modern technologies.

  • **(b) Need to

revive traditional arts and crafts:**

  1. Cultural Preservation: Reviving traditional art helps preserve cultural heritage for future generations.
  2. Economic Empowerment: Traditional crafts provide employment and income, especially for artisans in rural areas.
  3. Global Recognition: Many traditional crafts have international appeal, offering economic opportunities in global markets.
  • (c) Two steps taken by the government:
    1. Geographical Indication (GI) Tags: These are provided to traditional crafts, protecting the intellectual property rights of artisans.
    2. National Handicrafts Development Programme: The government promotes training, marketing, and preservation of traditional crafts through various schemes.

29.
Discuss three types of hazards along with an example for each.
OR
Enumerate three roles of Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC) in enhancing food safety.

Answer:

  • Three types of hazards in food:

    1. Biological Hazards: These include bacteria, viruses, and fungi that can cause foodborne illnesses. Example: Salmonella contamination in raw chicken.
    2. Chemical Hazards: These include harmful chemicals such as pesticides, food additives, and heavy metals. Example: Lead contamination in water used for food processing.
    3. Physical Hazards: These include foreign objects that may contaminate food. Example: Glass shards found in packaged food.

  • Roles of Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC):

    1. Setting International Standards: CAC sets food safety standards to ensure food is safe for consumption globally.
    2. Ensuring Fair Practices in Food Trade: It develops guidelines to ensure fair practices in international food trade.
    3. Providing a Framework for Food Safety Management: CAC offers guidelines for national authorities to improve food safety systems and risk management.

Let me know if you’d like to proceed with more!

SECTION D

(LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS) – 4 or 5 MARKS EACH

30.
(a) Enumerate four factors which can lead to food deterioration or spoilage.
(b) Mention any four traditional methods by which food is preserved from spoiling after harvesting or slaughtering.

Answer:

  • (a) Factors leading to food deterioration or spoilage:
    1. Microbial Growth: Bacteria, fungi, and yeast can grow on food, causing decay and spoilage.
    2. Enzymatic Activity: Natural enzymes in food can break down nutrients, leading to ripening, discoloration, and spoilage (e.g., in fruits and vegetables).
    3. Exposure to Oxygen (Oxidation): Exposure to oxygen can cause fats to become rancid, and fruits and vegetables to brown (e.g., cut apples turning brown).
    4. Temperature: Incorrect storage temperatures can lead to bacterial growth, fermentation, or faster enzymatic activity, accelerating spoilage.
  • (b) Traditional methods of food preservation:
    1. Drying: Dehydration of food, such as drying fruits or fish, removes moisture, inhibiting bacterial growth.
    2. Salting: Salt draws out moisture from the food, making it inhospitable for microorganisms (e.g., salted fish or meat).
    3. Smoking: Exposing food to smoke preserves it by drying and adding antimicrobial properties (e.g., smoked meats).
    4. Fermentation: Fermentation not only preserves food but also enhances flavor (e.g., pickling, fermentation of vegetables, or dairy products like yogurt).

31.
‘The NEP lays a lot of impetus on Early Childhood Care and Education.’
(a) List any two factors which have led to the increase in significance of ECCE in contemporary times.
(b) State one contribution of each of the following in the field of ECCE:

  • (i) Piaget
  • (ii) Vygotsky
  • (iii) Maria Montessori

Answer:

  • (a) Factors leading to the increase in significance of ECCE:
    1. Rising Awareness of Early Childhood Development: Research has shown that the early years of a child’s life are crucial for brain development, learning, and behavior.
    2. Government Initiatives and Policies: The implementation of policies like the NEP 2020 has emphasized the importance of ECCE in ensuring better foundational education.
  • (b) Contributions to ECCE:
    • (i) Piaget: Piaget contributed the concept of stages of cognitive development, highlighting that children learn by actively constructing their understanding through experiences.
    • (ii) Vygotsky: Vygotsky introduced the Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD), emphasizing that children learn most effectively through social interaction and guided learning from more knowledgeable others.
    • (iii) Maria Montessori: Montessori developed the Montessori Method, which promotes child-centered learning with hands-on activities, independence, and respect for the child’s natural development.

32.
(i) ‘The principle of all washing machines is to keep the fabric in movement in the washing solution to carry away the dirt.’
(a) Discuss the three processes involved in the washing equipment of a commercial laundry.
(b) Which of the above processes is used in front-loading machines?
OR
(ii) ‘The field of Care and Maintenance of Fabrics is a technical field, and you want to work in hi-tech laundry.’
(a) Present any three primary requirements you must possess for this.
(b) What qualifications are required for this role?

Answer:

  • (i) Washing processes in commercial laundry:
    1. Pre-Wash or Soaking: Fabrics are soaked in water to loosen dirt, stains, or grime.
    2. Washing: The clothes are agitated in detergent-filled water to remove dirt. This process involves mechanical action to ensure thorough cleaning.
    3. Rinsing: After washing, the fabrics are rinsed with clean water to remove detergent and dirt residues.
    • (b) Process used in front-loading machines:
      Front-loading machines typically use the agitation process (washing) where clothes are moved horizontally in a drum to clean them. The drum’s motion creates friction and removes dirt effectively.
  • (ii) (a) Requirements for working in a hi-tech laundry:
    1. Technical Knowledge: Understanding of modern laundry equipment, detergents, and the latest washing technologies.
    2. Attention to Detail: Ability to monitor and control machines to ensure fabrics are not damaged during the washing process.
    3. Problem-Solving Skills: Identifying and resolving issues such as fabric shrinkage or color fading.
    • (b) Qualifications required for the role:
      1. Diploma or Degree in Textile Technology: A qualification in textile technology or laundry management provides the foundational knowledge required.
      2. Training in Laundry Equipment Operation: Specialized training in the operation of commercial and industrial laundry equipment is essential.

33.
‘The field of public health nutrition is multidisciplinary in nature and is built on the foundations of biological and social sciences.’
(a) Explain this statement by highlighting four knowledge and skills required by Public Health Nutritionists.
(b) Give four career avenues for Public Health Nutritionists.

Answer:

  • (a) Knowledge and skills required by Public Health Nutritionists:
    1. Nutrition Science Knowledge: Understanding of how nutrients affect human health, growth, and development, and how they contribute to the prevention of disease.
    2. Public Health Skills: Knowledge of epidemiology, health policy, and population health strategies to address the nutritional needs of communities.
    3. Communication Skills: Ability to communicate nutrition information to diverse populations, including individuals with low literacy levels.
    4. Research Skills: Skills in conducting surveys, assessments, and research to evaluate nutritional status and program effectiveness.
  • (b) Career avenues for Public Health Nutritionists:
    1. Government Health Programs: Working in public health agencies or NGOs, providing nutrition advice for community health initiatives.
    2. Health Advocacy and Policy Making: Influencing policy and advocating for improved nutrition and food security.
    3. Nutrition Education and Promotion: Educating the public on healthy eating habits through media or community outreach programs.
    4. Research and Academia: Conducting research on nutrition, dietetics, and public health issues, or teaching in universities.

34.
(i) ‘To interpret consumer demand one should understand target market and consumer motivations.’
What do you mean by target market? Describe four segments of target market.
OR
(ii) After completing class XII, your friend is considering a career in the fashion industry. You’ve recommended pursuing a career as a fashion merchandiser. Guide your friend who a fashion merchandiser is and describe their four key roles within the fashion industry.

Answer:

  • (i) Target Market and Segments:
    • Target Market: A target market refers to a specific group of consumers who are identified as potential buyers of a product or service based on their demographic, psychographic, or behavioral characteristics.
    • Four segments of target market:
      1. Demographic Segmentation: This involves targeting consumers based on factors like age, gender, income, education, or family size.
      2. Geographic Segmentation: This focuses on customers based on their location such as city, region, or country.
      3. Psychographic Segmentation: This divides the market based on lifestyle, values, or personality traits (e.g., health-conscious, eco-friendly).
      4. Behavioral Segmentation: This targets consumers based on their purchasing behavior, such as usage rate, brand loyalty, or benefits sought.
  • (ii) Fashion Merchandiser and Their Key Roles:
    • Fashion Merchandiser: A fashion merchandiser is responsible for planning, buying, and selling the fashion products that retail stores or fashion brands offer to consumers. They ensure that the products meet consumer demand while remaining profitable for the brand.
    • Four key roles of a fashion merchandiser:
      1. Trend Forecasting: Predicting future fashion trends by analyzing market research, consumer behavior, and industry developments.
      2. Product Selection and Buying: Selecting the right mix of clothing and accessories based on the target market and seasonal trends.
      3. Inventory Management: Ensuring that the right amount of stock is available to meet demand without overstocking or understocking.
      4. Pricing Strategy: Setting competitive and profitable prices while ensuring the brand’s positioning and margins are maintained.

35.
‘Most consumers are unaware of their rights and responsibilities and do not know the various legislative provisions that have been made to protect them.’
(a) Which law was formed to protect consumers? And when was it implemented?
(b) Give two implications and four features of this law.

Answer:

  • (a) Law for Consumer Protection:
    • The Consumer Protection Act (CPA), 2019 was formed to protect consumer rights in India and was implemented in July 2020.
  • (b) Implications and Features of the CPA:
    • **

Implications:** 1. Right to Information: Consumers are now empowered with the right to seek and receive information about products and services. 2. Redressal Mechanism: Consumers have access to a simplified mechanism for lodging complaints against faulty goods and services.

  • Features:
    1. Right to Protection: Protection against unfair trade practices, deceptive advertising, and defective goods.
    2. Right to Redressal: Consumers can file complaints and seek compensation for faulty goods and poor services.
    3. Consumer Dispute Redressal Commissions: Establishment of commissions at district, state, and national levels for speedy resolution of consumer disputes.
    4. Product Liability: Holding manufacturers and service providers accountable for harm caused by defective products.