Psychology (037)
Class- XII
Sample Question Paper 2024-2025

Time – 3 Hours                                                                                                                                                                                                                     Max Marks – 70

General instructions
 All questions are compulsory except where internal choice has been given.
 Question Nos.1-14 in Section A carry 1 mark each. You are expected to answer them as
directed.
 Question Nos. 15-19 in Section B are very short answer type-I questions carrying 2 marks
each. The answer to each question should not exceed 30 words.
 Question Nos. 20-23 in Section C are short answer type-II questions carrying 3 marks each.
The answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
 Question Nos. 24 – 27 in Section D are long answer type-I questions carrying 4 marks each.
The answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
 Question Nos. 28-29 in Section E are long answer type-II questions carrying 6 marks each.
The answer to each question should not exceed 200 words.
 Question Nos.30–33 in Section F are based on two cases given. The answer to each onemark question should not exceed 20 words. The answer to each two-mark question should
not exceed 30 words.
S

SECTION A

Q 1 Bobby is diagnosed with diabetes. However, he refuses to accept the diagnosis and continues to maintain the same lifestyle. Identify the defense mechanism that Bobby is using.

A. Repression B. Rationalization C. Denial D. Displacement

Answer: C. Denial

Q 2 Which one of the following is true for personality assessment?

i. A person’s behaviour in a variety of situations can provide us with meaningful information about his/her personality. ii. Indirect techniques can be scored in an objective manner. iii. Direct methods of personality assessment cover the unconscious part of our behaviour. iv. Psychological testing requires great skill and training.

Options: A. i and iii B. i and iv C. ii and iii D. ii and iv

Answer: B. i and iv

Q 3 Rita wants to perform well in the examination and hence starts attending classes regularly, taking notes, setting study targets, etc. Which theory of intelligence gives importance to this stage of planning?

A. Hierarchical Model of Intelligence B. PASS Model C. Theory of Multiple Intelligences D. Structure of Intellect Model of Intelligence

Answer: B. PASS Model

Q 4 Which of the following statements applies to Sudarshan Kriya Yoga?

A. It combines pranayam with chanting B. It consists of mindfulness-based meditation C. It involves rapid breathing technique to induce hyperventilation D. It refers to asanas or only bodily postures

Answer: C. It involves rapid breathing technique to induce hyperventilation

Q 5 Suhail’s intense and overwhelming fear of driving has disrupted his daily life. He does not go outside for important tasks unless somebody else drives the car for him. He has even left his job and has few social contacts. The most suitable behaviour therapy for Suhail would be:

A. Systematic desensitization B. Positive reinforcement C. Differential reinforcement D. Token economy

Answer: A. Systematic desensitization

Q 6

Assertion (A): In Logotherapy, transference is actively discouraged.

Reason (R): The goal of Logotherapy is to help patients find meaning and responsibility in their lives irrespective of their life circumstances.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A C. A is true but R is false. D. A is false but R is true. 

Answer: D. A is false but R is true.  

Q 7 Jayant believes that the television news anchor is talking to him. He is exhibiting:

A. Delusion of reference B. Delusion of control C. Formal thought disorder D. Auditory hallucination

Answer: A. Delusion of reference

Q 8 Maya has been feeling anxious and experiencing panic attacks for the past two weeks. She feels a constant sense of fear accompanied by rapid heartbeat, sweating, and shortness of breath. This is affecting her ability to participate in school activities. Which of the following criteria for abnormality in psychological disorders is best illustrated by Maya’s symptoms?

A. Deviance and danger B. Distress and dysfunction C. Duration and distress D. Danger and depression

Answer: B. Distress and dysfunction

Q 9 Which of the following is not a characteristic of Autism spectrum disorder?

A. Shortness of breath B. Repetitive behaviour C. Problem in non-verbal communication D. Problem in social interaction

Answer: A. Shortness of breath

Q 10 Identify the statements that are not true to group polarisation:

i. It is a consequence of extreme cohesiveness. ii. Groups are more likely to take extreme decisions than individuals alone. iii. When you find people having similar views you perceive them as an ingroup. iv. As the group becomes one unit you begin to think, feel and act like them.

Options: A. i and iv B. iii and iv C. ii and iv D. ii and iii

Answer: A. i and iv

Q 11 Which one of the following statements describes a team?

A. Collection of people who may be present at a place by chance. B. The members have complimentary skills and are committed to a common goal. C. Only the leader is responsible for the work. D. Polarisation in attention and actions of persons are in common direction.

Answer: B. The members have complimentary skills and are committed to a common goal.

Q 12 Shweta has joined the National Cadet Corps. Identify the type of group she is now a member of:

i. Primary ii. Secondary iii. Informal iv. Formal

Options: A. i and iv B. iii and iv C. ii and iv D. ii and iii

Answer: C. ii and iv

Q 13 The concept of balance as proposed by Fritz Heider states that balance is found when:

A. All three sides of the P-O-X triangle are negative. B. Two sides of the P-O-X triangle are positive, and one side is negative. C. Two sides of the P-O-X triangle are negative, and one side is positive. D. There is a state of cognitive dissonance.

Answer: B. Two sides of the P-O-X triangle are positive, and one side is negative.

Q 14 Identify the statement that can help in reducing social loafing.

A. Making the group effort identifiable, instead of individual effort. B. Decreasing the pressure to work hard towards the achievement of group goals. C. Making people feel that their individual contribution is important. D. Weakening group cohesiveness and increasing motivation to increase productivity.

Answer: C. Making people feel that their individual contribution is important.

Certainly, let’s analyze the questions in Section B of the Psychology question paper:

Q 15 ‘An individual’s response to a stressful situation largely depends upon the perceived events and how they are interpreted or appraised.’ Do you agree with this statement with reference to Lazarus’ theory? State a reason for your answer.

Answer: Yes, I agree with the statement. Lazarus’s theory of stress and coping emphasizes the importance of cognitive appraisal in determining an individual’s stress response. According to Lazarus, stress arises not from the actual stressor itself, but from how we perceive and interpret the situation. This means that two individuals might experience the same event differently, leading to varying stress responses. For example, one person might perceive a job interview as a challenging opportunity, while another might see it as a threatening situation. These different appraisals will lead to different emotional and physiological reactions.

Q 16(A) Explain two major limitations of rating scales in assessment.

Answer:

  1. Subjectivity: Rating scales are subjective in nature as they rely on the rater’s judgment and interpretation. Different raters may have different perceptions and biases, leading to variations in scores and interpretations.
  2. Halo Effect: This is a common bias where the rater’s overall impression of the individual influences their ratings on specific traits. For example, if the rater likes the individual, they may tend to give higher ratings even for traits where the individual might not excel.

OR

Q 16(B) State the main characteristics of Type A personality.

Answer:

Type A personality is characterized by a cluster of traits, including:

  • Competitiveness: A strong drive to succeed and outperform others.
  • Time urgency: A constant feeling of pressure and impatience.
  • Hostility and aggression: A tendency towards anger, irritability, and cynicism.
  • Restlessness: Difficulty relaxing and a constant need to be doing something.

Q 17 “The cross-situational consistency of traits is found to be quite low”. Evaluate this statement with reference to the interactional approach to personality.

Answer:

The interactional approach to personality emphasizes the importance of both personal factors (traits) and situational factors in determining behavior. It suggests that while traits may predispose individuals to certain behaviors, the specific situation also plays a crucial role in shaping their actions. Therefore, the cross-situational consistency of traits might be low because the same individual might behave differently in different situations. For example, a person who is generally outgoing might be more reserved in a formal setting compared to a social gathering.

Q 19 Aslam is a manager in an organisation. To conduct a team-building activity, he assigned work to selected members randomly. He observed that while executing the task, there came a stage when there was conflict among the members.

At what stage of group formation would this have taken place and explain the stage that is likely to follow?

Answer:

This conflict likely occurred during the storming stage of group formation. During this stage, group members assert their individuality and may experience conflict as they compete for roles and influence within the group.

The stage likely to follow is norming. In this stage, the group members start to resolve their conflicts, establish norms and expectations, and develop a sense of cohesion.

Let me know if you’d like to proceed with the remaining sections of the question paper!

Q 20 Maninder is confident in saying ‘no’ to a request that he cannot fulfil. He is also able to organise his work and not procrastinate it. Explain the life skills exhibited by him.

Answer:

Maninder exhibits the following life skills:

  1. Assertiveness: He is able to assert his own needs and boundaries by confidently saying “no” when necessary. This skill is essential for maintaining healthy relationships and avoiding burnout.

  2. Self-management: He demonstrates good self-management skills by being able to organize his work and avoid procrastination. This involves planning, prioritizing tasks, and using time effectively.

Q 21 Peter is a 28-year-old man who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He lacks the necessary skills to be an independent and productive member of society. As a mental health professional, suggest any three rehabilitation techniques to support Peter in becoming self-sufficient.

Answer:

Here are three rehabilitation techniques that can help Peter:

  1. Vocational Rehabilitation: This involves providing training and support to help individuals with mental health conditions find and maintain employment. This could include job skills training, job placement assistance, and on-the-job support.

  2. Social Skills Training: This focuses on improving social interaction skills such as communication, assertiveness, and relationship building. This can help Peter develop the skills needed to interact with others effectively in social and work settings.

  3. Supported Living Programs: These programs provide individuals with ongoing support and assistance in developing independent living skills such as cooking, cleaning, budgeting, and managing medications. This can help Peter live more independently in the community.

Q 22(A) Ramit, a painter, is a happy, self-fulfilled and fully functioning person. He holds exhibitions of his art work which is always appreciated by all the visitors. How will Carl Rogers explain Ramit’s personality?

Answer:

Carl Rogers, a prominent humanist psychologist, would likely explain Ramit’s personality in terms of his self-actualization. According to Rogers, self-actualization is the innate human tendency to strive for growth, fulfillment, and the realization of one’s potential. Ramit’s passion for painting, his creative expression, and the positive feedback he receives from others suggest that he is living authentically and fulfilling his potential. Rogers would emphasize the importance of congruence between Ramit’s self-concept and his experiences, which would contribute to his happiness and well-being.

OR

Q 22(B) The Birhors, a tribal community largely lead a nomadic life depending on hunting and gathering. How will this lifestyle influence the personality development of children from this community?

Answer:

The nomadic lifestyle of the Birhor community would likely have a significant influence on the personality development of children.

  • Adaptability and Resilience: Living a nomadic life requires constant adaptation to new environments and challenges. Children in this community would likely develop high levels of adaptability, resourcefulness, and resilience in the face of change and uncertainty.

  • Interdependence: The nomadic lifestyle often involves close-knit family and community ties. Children would learn the importance of cooperation, interdependence, and sharing within the group.

  • Respect for Nature: Living in close contact with nature would likely foster a deep respect for the environment and a strong connection to the natural world.

Q 23 Differentiate between obsessive and compulsive behaviour.

Answer:

  • Obsessions: These are recurrent and persistent thoughts, urges, or images that are intrusive and unwanted. They can be distressing and difficult to control. Examples include:

    • Recurrent thoughts of contamination
    • Obsessive doubts about whether you have locked the door or turned off the stove
    • Intrusive violent or sexual thoughts

  • Compulsions: These are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that an individual feels driven to perform in response to an obsession or according to rigid rules. Compulsions are aimed at reducing anxiety or preventing a dreaded outcome, but they are often time-consuming and do not provide long-term relief. Examples include:  

    • Excessive handwashing
    • Checking locks repeatedly
    • Counting or repeating certain words or phrase

 

Q 24(A) Sara believes in the importance of regular exercise for maintaining good health. Despite this belief, she rarely engages in any form of physical activity. With respect to Sara, explain the reasons for the lack of consistency between her attitude and behaviour.

Answer:

There could be several reasons for the inconsistency between Sara’s belief in the importance of exercise and her lack of physical activity:

  1. Subjective Norms: Sara might perceive that her social group or close friends do not prioritize exercise, leading her to believe that it is not socially acceptable or expected of her.

  2. Perceived Behavioral Control: Sara might feel that she lacks the time, resources, or motivation to engage in regular exercise. She might feel that other commitments (work, family, etc.) take precedence over physical activity.

  3. Attitude Ambivalence: Sara might have mixed feelings about exercise. While she recognizes its importance, she might also associate it with negative feelings like boredom, fatigue, or discomfort.

  4. Habit: Sara might have developed a habit of inactivity over time, making it difficult to change her routine. Breaking established habits and forming new ones can be challenging.

OR

Q 24(B) Rajan has a prejudice against senior citizens. As a result, he ignores their inputs and ideas. What are the likely sources of the prejudice that he holds?

Answer:

Several sources could contribute to Rajan’s prejudice against senior citizens:

  1. Social Learning: Rajan might have learned these prejudiced attitudes from his family, friends, or the media. These sources can perpetuate stereotypes and biases through direct or indirect exposure.

  2. Negative Experiences: Past negative interactions or experiences with specific elderly individuals might have led Rajan to form negative generalizations about the entire group.

  3. Sociocultural Factors: Societal norms and values can sometimes reinforce negative stereotypes about aging and older adults. These stereotypes can influence individual attitudes and beliefs.

  4. Personality Factors: Personality traits such as authoritarianism and dogmatism might predispose individuals to hold prejudiced attitudes towards different groups, including older adults.

Q 25 Gagan’s psychologist used a technique of personality assessment that required story writing around pictures and completion of sentences etc. Identify and describe the techniques being referred to here.

Answer:

The techniques being referred to here are projective techniques. These are indirect methods of personality assessment that involve presenting ambiguous stimuli to the individual and then analyzing their responses.

  • Thematic Apperception Test (TAT): In this technique, individuals are shown a series of ambiguous pictures and asked to create stories about them. The stories are then analyzed to understand the individual’s underlying motives, conflicts, and personality traits.

  • Sentence Completion Test: In this technique, individuals are presented with incomplete sentences and asked to complete them in their own words. The responses can reveal underlying thoughts, feelings, and attitudes.

Projective techniques are considered to be less structured than objective tests and allow for a deeper exploration of the individual’s unconscious thoughts and feelings.

Q 26 Shanta has an IQ of 140. She has recently won an award for the ‘Best Author’ as well. Will she be gifted or talented? Elaborate on giftedness and its characteristics.

Answer:

Shanta can be considered gifted based on her high IQ score. However, giftedness alone does not necessarily equate to talent.

  • Giftedness refers to exceptional intellectual abilities, often characterized by high IQ, creative thinking, and rapid learning. It is a general cognitive ability.

  • Talent, on the other hand, refers to a specific exceptional ability or skill in a particular domain, such as music, art, or sports. It requires deliberate practice, dedication, and a combination of innate abilities and acquired skills.

While Shanta’s high IQ might contribute to her writing abilities, her “Best Author” award suggests that she also possesses talent in writing. This talent is likely a result of her innate abilities combined with her dedication, creativity, and practice in writing.

Q 27 Explain the effect of stress on the psychological functioning of an individual.

Answer:

Stress can have a significant impact on an individual’s psychological functioning. Some of the effects include:

  • Emotional Distress: Stress can lead to a range of negative emotions, including anxiety, depression, irritability, and anger.

  • Cognitive Impairment: Stress can impair cognitive functioning, affecting attention, concentration, memory, and decision-making.

  • Behavioral Changes: Stress can lead to changes in behavior, such as increased irritability, aggression, withdrawal, or substance abuse.

  • Psychological Disorders: Prolonged or severe stress can increase the risk of developing various psychological disorders, such as anxiety disorders, depression, and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD).

 

 

Q 28(A) What are the features of Neurodevelopmental Disorders? Explain any two disorders under this category.

Answer:

Features of Neurodevelopmental Disorders:

  • Onset in the developmental period: These disorders typically manifest early in life, often during childhood or adolescence.  
  • Impairment in brain development and functioning: They involve impairments in the development and functioning of the central nervous system, affecting various aspects of brain development and functioning. 

     

     

     

  • Lifelong impact: Neurodevelopmental disorders often have a lifelong impact on individuals, affecting theircognitive, emotional, social, and behavioral development. 

     

     

     

  • Heterogeneity: These disorders exhibit significant heterogeneity in their presentation, with a wide range of symptoms and severity levels across individuals.  
  • Two Disorders under Neurodevelopmental Disorders:

  1. Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD):

    • Features: ASD is characterized by persistent deficits in social communication and interaction, as well as restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, or activities. Individuals with ASD may have difficulty with social interaction, nonverbal communication, developing and maintaining relationships, and engaging in imaginative play. Repetitive behaviors may include hand-flapping, rocking, insistence on sameness, and intense fixation on specific interests.  

       

       

       

    • Impact: ASD can significantly impact an individual’s social, emotional, and cognitive development, leading to challenges in learning, communication, and social relationships.  

  2. Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD):

    • Features: ADHD is characterized by a persistent pattern of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity that interferes with functioning or development. Individuals with ADHD may have difficulty paying attention, sustaining focus, following instructions, and completing tasks. They may also exhibit hyperactivity-impulsivity, such as fidgeting, restlessness, excessive talking, and difficulty waiting their turn.

       

       

       

    • Impact: ADHD can affect academic performance, social relationships, and occupational functioning. Individuals with ADHD may struggle in school, experience difficulty maintaining friendships, and have problems with organization and time management.

OR

Q 28(B) Generalised Anxiety Disorder and Phobia are types of anxiety disorders. How will different psychological models explain the development of these disorders?  

Answer:

Psychological Models for the Development of GAD and Phobias:

  1. Psychoanalytic Perspective:

    • GAD: Psychoanalysis suggests that GAD arises from unresolved unconscious conflicts and anxieties. These unresolved conflicts, often stemming from childhood experiences, manifest as free-floating anxiety, meaning it is not attached to any specific object or situation.
    • Phobias: According to psychoanalysis, phobias represent a displacement of anxiety onto a specific object or situation. This displacement serves as a defense mechanism to protect the individual from confronting underlying unconscious conflicts.

  2. Behavioral Perspective:

    • GAD: Behaviorists suggest that GAD develops through classical conditioning and operant conditioning. Negative experiences, such as stressful life events or trauma, can become associated with fear and anxiety. Avoidance behaviors, which temporarily reduce anxiety, are reinforced through operant conditioning, leading to a vicious cycle of avoidance and anxiety

       

       

    • Phobias: Behaviorists explain phobias through classical conditioning. A neutral stimulus (e.g., a spider) can become associated with a frightening event (e.g., a sudden loud noise), leading to the development of a fear response. Operant conditioning also plays a role, as avoidance behaviors reinforce the fear response.  

  3. Cognitive Perspective:

    • GAD: Cognitive theorists emphasize the role of maladaptive cognitions in the development of GAD. Individuals with GAD tend to have negative and distorted thinking patterns, such as excessive worry, catastrophic thinking, and rumination. These negative thoughts contribute to heightened anxiety levels.  

       

       

    • Phobias: Cognitive theorists suggest that phobias develop due to biased information processing and distorted cognitions. Individuals with phobias tend to overestimate the threat posed by the phobic object or situation, underestimate their ability to cope, and engage in catastrophic thinking.  

Q 29(A) Differentiate between information processing and psychometric approach to understand intelligence. Explain any four theories of psychometric approach.

Answer:

Difference between Information Processing and Psychometric Approaches:

  • Information Processing Approach: This approach focuses on how individuals process information, such as how they perceive, encode, store, and retrieve information. It examines the cognitive processes involved in intelligence, such as attention, memory, problem-solving, and decision-making.

     

     

  • Psychometric Approach: This approach emphasizes the measurement of intelligence through standardized tests and statistical analysis. It focuses on identifying individual differences in intelligence and identifying different types or components of intelligence.

Four Theories of Psychometric Approach:

  1. Two-Factor Theory (Spearman): This theory proposes that intelligence consists of a general factor (g) that underlies all mental abilities and specific factors (s) that are specific to particular skills.  

  2. Multiple Intelligences Theory (Gardner): This theory suggests that intelligence is not a single entity, but rather a constellation of multiple distinct and independent intelligences, such as linguistic, logical-mathematical, spatial, musical, bodily-kinesthetic, interpersonal, intrapersonal, and naturalistic.   

  3. Triarchic Theory of Intelligence (Sternberg): This theory proposes three distinct types of intelligence: analytical intelligence (academic problem-solving), creative intelligence (dealing with novel situations), and practical intelligence (everyday problem-solving and adaptation to real-world contexts).  

  4. Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence Theory (Cattell): This theory differentiates between fluid intelligence, which is the ability to think abstractly and solve novel problems, and crystallized intelligence, which represents acquired knowledge and skills. Fluid intelligence tends to decline with age, while crystallized intelligence tends to increase.  

OR

Q 29(B) What is the relationship between creativity and intelligence? Differentiate between creativity tests and intelligence tests.

Answer:

The relationship between creativity and intelligence is complex. While high intelligence can facilitate creative thinking, they are not the same. High intelligence might be necessary but not sufficient for creativity. 

  • Creativity involves generating novel and valuable ideas or solutions to problems. It requires divergent thinking, the ability to think in multiple directions and come up with unusual or original ideas.

     

     

  • Intelligence is generally associated with convergent thinking, the ability to find the best solution to a problem or come up with the correct answer.

Differentiation between Creativity Tests and Intelligence Tests:

Feature Creativity Tests Intelligence Tests
Focus Divergent thinking, originality, fluency Convergent thinking, problem-solving, analytical skills
Examples Torrance Tests of Creative Thinking, Wallach and Kogan Creativity Tests IQ tests (e.g., WAIS, Raven’s Progressive Matrices), Aptitude tests
Scoring Emphasis on originality, fluency, and flexibility of thought Emphasis on accuracy and speed

SECTION F

CASE 1

Read the following passage and answer question numbers 30 and 31.

Anita, a 40-year-old woman having a history of persistent depression was referred for therapy. She described feeling overwhelmed by feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and worthlessness, which had significantly impacted her personal and professional life.

Anita’s childhood was marked by significant adversity, including growing up in a dysfunctional family environment characterised by parental neglect and emotional abuse. As a child, Anita internalised feelings of inadequacy and worthlessness. She exaggerated her flaws and overlooked her strengths. Her self-critical thoughts manifested statements such as “I’m a failure,” “I’ll never be happy,” and “Nobody cares about me.” These distorted thoughts reinforced her feelings of hopelessness and contributed to her ongoing depressive state.

Q 30 Identify the core beliefs developed during Anita’s childhood.

Answer:

  • Inadequacy and Worthlessness: These beliefs likely stemmed from the neglect and emotional abuse she experienced, leading her to internalize feelings of being inadequate and unworthy of love and acceptance.

Q 31 Which therapy would be most suitable to reduce Anita’s distress? Give reason for your answer

Answer:

Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT) would likely be the most suitable therapy.

Reason:

CBT focuses on identifying and modifying negative thought patterns and maladaptive behaviors. In Anita’s case, CBT would aim to:

  • Identify and challenge negative automatic thoughts: The therapist would help Anita identify and challenge her self-critical thoughts (“I’m a failure,” “I’ll never be happy,” etc.). Through cognitive restructuring techniques, Anita would learn to recognize and reframe these negative thoughts into more realistic and positive perspectives.
  • Develop coping strategies: CBT would equip Anita with coping strategies to manage stress and regulate emotions. This might include relaxation techniques, problem-solving skills, and assertiveness training.
  • Address behavioral changes: CBT would encourage Anita to engage in activities that can improve her mood and increase her sense of self-worth, such as exercise, social interaction, and pursuing hobbies.

CASE 2

Read the following passage and answer question numbers 32 and 33.

Renowned environmentalist T. Shobheendran, after retiring as a Professor of Economics, dedicated himself to fostering a culture of nature conservation among young people. Shobheendran spearheaded unique programs to engage students in tree planting and conservation efforts, transforming approximately 100 acres of barren land surrounding the college campus into a lush green area adorned with over 5,000 trees. Additionally, he actively participated in planting hundreds of saplings in public spaces and along roadsides.

Shobheendran’s initiatives also led to the establishment of research centres for afforestation projects at both campus and city levels. Members of the Kerala Prakruthi Samrakshana Samiti fondly recalled Shobheendran’s tireless efforts against river bank encroachments and water pollution. His advocacy prompted government authorities to take decisive action.

Shobheendran’s legacy as a champion for nature lives on through the countless individuals he inspired with his relentless conservation activities and social campaigns. Source: The Hindu ([invalid URL removed] which of the following

Q 32 ‘He actively participated in planting hundreds of saplings in public spaces and along roadsides.’ Which component of attitude is expressed here?

Answer:

Behavioral

Q 33 Explain any two processes that may have led to the formation of T. Shobheendran’s attitude towards the environment.

Answer:

  1. Classical Conditioning: This process involves learning through association. Shobheendran might have had positive experiences in nature during his childhood, leading him to associate nature with feelings of happiness, peace, and well-being. These positive associations could have shaped his positive attitude towards the environment.

  2. Operant Conditioning: This process involves learning through reinforcement. Shobheendran’s efforts towards conservation might have been praised by others or resulted in positive outcomes (e.g., a flourishing green space). These positive reinforcements could have strengthened his behavior of environmental protection and reinforced his positive attitude towards the environment.

The passage also mentions Shobheendran’s profession as an Economics Professor. It’s possible that his academic background might have exposed him to the economic and social costs of environmental degradation, further solidifying his pro-environmental stance.